Artificer said:
Rich,
There is the hypothesis that Native American demands drove the evolution of the longrifle and it's a reasonable hypothesis.
Given that many colonial settlers all along the frontier had no rifles in this period, say from Maine to Maryland excluding Pennsylvania, it seems likely that the deer hide hunters or long hunters were the main market for rifles among colonists in the very early years. The Boones and others would be good examples. However pretty quickly a demand for rifles arose, enough to establish Bethlehem, Reading, Lancaster and York as gunsmithing centers specializing in longrifles. That seems to have started really taking off in the late 1760s.
Gus
Shumway in RCA II points out that there is a mention of a rifle from a Virginia estate dating to
1683, and informs us, without providing examples, that there are many accounts of rifles in the hands of white settlers in the Shenandoah Valley from the 1750s on. Likewise, rifles were part of Carolina culture from the 1750s on - he cites Biven's book, which I do not yet have, unfortunately. Both Shumway and DeWitt Bailey point out that there were significant numbers of rifles in the hands of provincial troops under Forbe's command in the late 1750s - Bailey has the documents quoted and Shumway points out that PA troops seem to have been issued muskets exclusively, so the rifles were likely in the hands of VA and Maryland troops.
The hypothesis that the longrifle developed as part of the Indian trade seems reasonable at first glance, but it is based on the assumption that whites did not start using rifles until the 1760s at earliest and that white rifle-culture spread out from PA at that time. Neither of these are correct. Even if they were, it still ignores the question of why a distinctive American weapon only emerged at the same time whites started taking to the woods in numbers if the Indians, who had been using rifles for decades in this theory, were the primary impetus to develop this new form.
And now the rant:
I'm honestly astonished that that theory gets as much traction as it does - the only actual argument I've run across in its favor is in Pete Alexander's book and while it has been awhile I remember it as being a textbook example of how
not to write history, being thinly sourced (and ignoring evidence from the very books he cites - Shumway - that doesn't suite the thesis), geographically narrow, a masterpiece of circular reasoning, and refutable using only the evidence he himself advances (see the timing issue noted above). I tend to believe that there is some truth to it, but, golly, what a shoddy argument...
rant over...